math question?

[skyblues11]

I have four numbers each one can reach a maximum of 10 which gives me a potential of 40. If those numbers = for instance 5,5,5,5 = 20/40= 50%

I then have 5 numbers with the same conditions as above. It's harder for the end result to equal 50% as they're are more numbers. 5,5,5,5,5=25/50=50%
(It's easier for the first example to reach 100% than the second example.)

I hope you can understand what I'm trying to explain. Is there anything I can do to counter this?

Thanks for any help and sorry for the poor explanation.

 

[tkhunny]

Is the minimum 0 or 1?

Let's assume it's 1. This gives 10 possibilities for each value.

A quick look at the binomial theorem suggests:

p = p(getting a 10 on any single value) ==> p(100%) = (1/10)^n where n is the number drawn.
1 - p = p(getting anything but a 10)

I would have to agree that 5 10's out of 5 is less likely than 4 10's out of 4.

I am struggling with p(50%), though. Why would that be any different with the number of draws? There might be some ambiguity with n odd or n even, I suppose.