I don't under the underline text.This is really not a math question, but rather a question of English grammar.
It is false that English requires that a fact must be stated in the present tense. We do not say
Israel declares its independence way back in 1948.
It is true that mathematical axioms are almost invariably stated in the present tense. The reason is not because they are considered true. The reason is that they are considered true at the time of utterance.
If we ignore the numerous complications involving the present perfect and oddities like the historical present, English tenses simply indicate time relative to when a statement is made rather than to truth. (Other Indo-European languages use mode to indicate belief, but English has only residual aspects of mode and uses different means to indicate counter-factual statements.)I don't under the underline text.
Can you elaborate the meaning of "Axioms is considered true at the time of utterance"?
1. If I were try to translate it to Hebrew it is mean when I said it or We said it (The utterance) is considered true,
Maybe I guess you mean that " the utterance is always" but I don't really find it the dictionary and i need to guess.
So what does you mean?
2. .I don't understand the grammatical example you give, it has't have a sense also in Hebrew.
You said Israel "coming back" by declaring (?) its independent... (????)
(?!)
The simple present tense in English has several uses, as stated for example here:Can I define axiom as Fact and as it is that, it will be in tense of Present Simple only?
Can one refute my way of thinking?