vjekobalas
New member
- Joined
- Feb 16, 2016
- Messages
- 9
I saw this old problem and answer (copy below) on some forum but
still didn't understand the solution i.e. if we substitute 1 for sin2x/2x and sin3x/3x
we are left with the 2x/3x - how is that supposed to be = 1 /what is the
thinking behind this ? Is it that as x->0, 2x and 3x are approx the same and
therefore 2x/3x approx 1 ?
******************
Proof: special limit is that lim as x->0 (sinA/A) = 1
So sin2x/(2x) = 1
To get sin (2x)/2x, multiply both sides of the fraction by 2x. Similarly, multiply both sides by 3x. You get:
lim x -> 0 of (2x)*[sin2x/(2x)]* 3x/{3x*sin3x}
which equals 2x/3x = 2/3
still didn't understand the solution i.e. if we substitute 1 for sin2x/2x and sin3x/3x
we are left with the 2x/3x - how is that supposed to be = 1 /what is the
thinking behind this ? Is it that as x->0, 2x and 3x are approx the same and
therefore 2x/3x approx 1 ?
******************
Proof: special limit is that lim as x->0 (sinA/A) = 1
So sin2x/(2x) = 1
To get sin (2x)/2x, multiply both sides of the fraction by 2x. Similarly, multiply both sides by 3x. You get:
lim x -> 0 of (2x)*[sin2x/(2x)]* 3x/{3x*sin3x}
which equals 2x/3x = 2/3