if |f(x)-f(y)|<=sin²(x-y) for every x and y reals then f is constant. True or false ?
I know that sin²(x-y) is between 0 and 1 , if it's true I'd have |f(x)-f(y)|<=0 but if sin² is equal to 1, I have |f(x)-f(y)|<=1 and I can't conclude for every x and y reals...
the other function is such as g(x)=0 if x is irrationnal and g(x)=x² is x is rationnal
Is this function differentiable in 0 and if so, does it own a relative minimum at that point ?
I think such a function can't be continuous since near 0 there are infinitely small rationnals ( 1/9999999999999) and irrationnals too (sqrt(1/9999999999999999999999999)) so it cannot be differentiable right ?
I know that sin²(x-y) is between 0 and 1 , if it's true I'd have |f(x)-f(y)|<=0 but if sin² is equal to 1, I have |f(x)-f(y)|<=1 and I can't conclude for every x and y reals...
the other function is such as g(x)=0 if x is irrationnal and g(x)=x² is x is rationnal
Is this function differentiable in 0 and if so, does it own a relative minimum at that point ?
I think such a function can't be continuous since near 0 there are infinitely small rationnals ( 1/9999999999999) and irrationnals too (sqrt(1/9999999999999999999999999)) so it cannot be differentiable right ?