The Student
Junior Member
- Joined
- Apr 25, 2012
- Messages
- 241
If there is, what is it?
I don't see any meaning in either of statements. v= (1, 2, 0) and u= (1, 2) are not the same- one is a point in \(\displaystyle R^3\) and the other a point in \(\displaystyle R^2\). We could, of course, "identify" the plane (x, y, 0) in \(\displaystyle R^3\) with \(\displaystyle R^2\). In mathematical terms, they are not the same but they are "equivalent", with the equivalence relation, (x, y, 0) identified with (x, y).
However, I am completely mistified by "(1, 2, 0)= 0" and "(1, 2)= 0"!