is the inverse function of f(x) written f ⁻¹(x)....or f ⁻¹(y)?
I have a maths test book that asks me the inverse, for instance, of
f:x --> 1 - x
And gives the answer as
f ⁻¹:y --> 1 - y
This seems a bit different from what I had learned on the net. I was sure that the inverse of f(x) is f ⁻¹(x), but the above makes me think it could be f ⁻¹(y)
The changing the subject of a formula is the easy part, it's just the usage of x and y that has seemed ambivalent to me. Thanks.
I have a maths test book that asks me the inverse, for instance, of
f:x --> 1 - x
And gives the answer as
f ⁻¹:y --> 1 - y
This seems a bit different from what I had learned on the net. I was sure that the inverse of f(x) is f ⁻¹(x), but the above makes me think it could be f ⁻¹(y)
The changing the subject of a formula is the easy part, it's just the usage of x and y that has seemed ambivalent to me. Thanks.