I think you are saying that something comes after infinity.
Let me try to present a similar idea...
Imagine an infinite sequence of digits that make up some irrational number { x1,x2,x3,x4,.... }
Let n=1
Shift all elements of index≥n to the right and insert digit 3 at index n so that we have {
3, x1,x2,x3,x4... }
Shift all elements of index≥2n to the right and insert digit 3 at index 2n so that we have { 3,
3, x1,x2,x3,x4... }
Increment n
Shift all elements of index≥n to the right and insert digit 1 at n so that we have { 3,
1, 3, x1,x2,x3,x4... }
Shift all elements of index≥2n to the right and insert digit 1 at 2n so that we have { 3,1, 3,
1, x1,x2,x3,x4... }
Increment n
Shift all elements of index≥n to the right and insert digit 4 at n so that we have { 3,1,
4, 3,1, x1,x2,x3,x4... }
Shift all elements of index≥2n to the right and insert digit 4 at 2n so that we have { 3,1,4, 3,1,
4, x1,x2,x3,x4... }
Repeat this process, using digits of pi, until n=x
Who is to say that for some finite (but very large) value of x, this sequence of digits could never equal the actual sequence of pi's digits? I'd bet that such a proof/ disproof doesn't exist. In other words,
I don't think that we can provide a definitive answer to the original post (which only requires this to be true for
some finite value of x). However, it does seem
massively unlikely.
And we could let x tend towards infinity. This would result in an irrational number that has an infinite-length repeat
- but not periodic. This is obviously just a "thought experiment", but I find it quite interesting.