Is it allowed to evaluate a limit this way ? And if not, why ?

ronfya

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Oct 15, 2023
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Hello All,

Are both of the following solutions to evaluate limits acceptable ? Or is there one that is "not allowed" for some reason ?
Thanks

Using product conjugate pattern

Screenshot 2023-10-15 at 14.26.44.jpg


or in a simpler way

Screenshot 2023-10-15 at 14.26.34.jpg
(1): because x^2+constant ~ x^2 when x --> inf
(2): because sqrt(x^2) = x when x>0
 
Hello All,

Are both of the following solutions to evaluate limits acceptable ? Or is there one that is "not allowed" for some reason ?
Thanks

Using product conjugate pattern

View attachment 36548


or in a simpler way

View attachment 36549
(1): because x^2+constant ~ x^2 when x --> inf
(2): because sqrt(x^2) = x when x>0
What you write in the second method assumes that you can replace an expression within a limit with another expression that has the same limit.

Do you have any theorem that says you can do that? If not, then you can't do it.
 
Hello All,

Are both of the following solutions to evaluate limits acceptable ? Or is there one that is "not allowed" for some reason ?
Thanks

Using product conjugate pattern

View attachment 36548


or in a simpler way

View attachment 36549
(1): because x^2+constant ~ x^2 when x --> inf
(2): because sqrt(x^2) = x when x>0

You second method is not valid. Using the same logic I could write
[math]\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} ((x-2) - (x+1)) = \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} (x - x) = 0[/math]But this is just an illustration. The actual reason is in @Dr.Peterson's post: you need to show/prove that your transformation is a valid one.
 
You second method is not valid. Using the same logic I could write
[math]\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} ((x-2) - (x+1)) = \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} (x - x) = 0[/math]But this is just an illustration. The actual reason is in @Dr.Peterson's post: you need to show/prove that your transformation is a valid one.
But the conjugate method is correct right? Because we are just multiplying by 1.
 
But the conjugate method is correct right? Because we are just multiplying by 1.
Yes, and in particular, every step is supported by a theorem.

Most steps are just rewriting the expression (not changing the function itself, and therefore not changing the limit); at the end, it is not technically valid to write that you are dividing by infinity, but there is a theorem that if a function can be written as a quotient of functions whose limits have the form "finite number / infinity", then the limit is 0.
 
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