D
Deleted member 4993
Guest
You are making this waaaay too difficult.
[imath]x = sec( \theta )[/imath]
So [imath]x^2 - 1 = sec^2( \theta ) - 1 = tan^2( \theta )[/imath]
and [imath]dx = sec( \theta ) ~ tan( \theta ) ~d \theta[/imath]
Your integral turns into
[math]\int \dfrac{dx}{(x^2 - 1)^{3/2}} = \int \dfrac{ sec( \theta ) ~ tan( \theta ) ~ d \theta }{(tan^2( \theta ))^{3/2} }[/math]
See what you can do with this.
-Dan
Dan, now you are going to make the lad go in circles counter-clockwise and make him cry for his uncle......I have been going round in circles on this and any help would be greatly appreciated
Now, at least he will run around in the (+) direction.