Yep, those questions, except the 0 on bottom and 1 on top of integral.
For the second one I believe the d/dx and integral cancel eachother out giving just arctan(x).
For the first, I'm not really sure if i'm doing it right, but I just did d/dx e^arctan(x) which is e^arctan(x)/x^2+1, then integrate that which brings back e^arctan(x) and do e^arctan(1) - e^arctan(0), which equals e^(pi/4) -1 .