inequality 2

chrislav

Junior Member
Joined
Jun 22, 2017
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134
Given A>0 find a B>0 such that:
For all x>0, x>B
[math]x\neq 1[/math] then [math]\frac{x}{x-\lfloor x\rfloor}>A[/math]without using the concept of the limit
 
This somewhat suspicious: whatever the value of B you can find an integer [imath]x > B[/imath] -- for example [imath]\lceil B\rceil+1[/imath] -- which means that [imath]x-\lfloor x\rfloor = 0[/imath], and the fraction becomes undefined (or infinity if you wish).
 
This somewhat suspicious: whatever the value of B you can find an integer [imath]x > B[/imath] -- for example [imath]\lceil B\rceil+1[/imath] -- which means that [imath]x-\lfloor x\rfloor = 0[/imath], and the fraction becomes undefined (or infinity if you wish).
YES i checked with Alpha Wolfram and the limit is infinity
 
If you don't care about zero in the denominator then my hint is: start with an inequality for that denominator, i.e., [imath]x-\lfloor x\rfloor[/imath].
 
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