suppose that x/y>w/z
where all x,y,w,z are positive real numbers in (0,1).
Take two other real numbers a<min(x,w) and b<min(y,z).
Is it always the case that (x-a)/(y-b)>(w-a)/(z-b) ?
Sure! Sorry I forgot to mention. I edited the post, thanks.Did you leave some information out?
Do we know that \(\displaystyle 0<a~\&~0<b~?\)