Looking at the int(1/(1-x))dx (from 0 to 3), there is a discontinuity at x = 1, so the integral is improper.
We split the integral up, going from 0 to 1 and from 1 to 3.
If the first integral is -oo, why does it not matter what the second integral equals? Couldn't the second integral be +oo and "perhaps" they cancel to get 0?
I looked at a graph and it appears the area from 0 to 1 is -oo and the area from 1 to 2 is +oo, and also it looks symmetrical, so graphically it seems that the integral would converge? Thank you!!!
We split the integral up, going from 0 to 1 and from 1 to 3.
If the first integral is -oo, why does it not matter what the second integral equals? Couldn't the second integral be +oo and "perhaps" they cancel to get 0?
I looked at a graph and it appears the area from 0 to 1 is -oo and the area from 1 to 2 is +oo, and also it looks symmetrical, so graphically it seems that the integral would converge? Thank you!!!