Implicit Differentiation

Silvanoshei

Junior Member
Joined
Feb 18, 2013
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61
Test.... tex works. Good.

Original problem. \(\displaystyle \sin \frac{x}{y}=\frac{1}{2}\)

My work so far.

\(\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx}\sin \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{y\frac{d}{dx}x-x\frac{d}{dx}y}{y^{2}}=0\)

\(\displaystyle \cos \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{y-x\frac{dy}{dx}}{y^{2}}=0\)

Now... here's the problem, I get stuck because i'm not seeing why the book says it goes to \(\displaystyle y-x\frac{d_{y}}{dx}=0\)?

I get \(\displaystyle \cos \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{-x\frac{dy}{dx}}{y}=0\)?

Edit note: how to make tex equations bigger? seems a little small to read.

Edit 2: Fixed size :D
 
Last edited:
Test.... tex works. Good.

Original problem. \(\displaystyle \sin \frac{x}{y}=\frac{1}{2}\)

My work so far.

\(\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx}\sin \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{y\frac{d}{dx}x-x\frac{d}{dx}y}{y^{2}}=0\)

\(\displaystyle \cos \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{y-x\frac{dy}{dx}}{y^{2}}=0\)

Now... here's the problem, I get stuck because i'm not seeing why the book says it goes to \(\displaystyle y-x\frac{d_{y}}{dx}=0\)?

I get \(\displaystyle \cos \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{-x\frac{dy}{dx}}{y}=0\)?

Edit note: how to make tex equations bigger? seems a little small to read.

Edit 2: Fixed size :D

I'm not sure what you mean when you say "the book says it goes to \(\displaystyle y-x\frac{d_{y}}{dx}=0\)?

I can tell you that it looks like you canceled the y in the numerator with one of the y's in the denominator and you can not do that since the y in the numerator is not a separate factor.
 
My question is, how does the book go from:

\(\displaystyle \cos \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{y-x\frac{dy}{dx}}{y^{2}}=0\)

to:

\(\displaystyle y-x\frac{d_{y}}{dx}=0\)?
 
My question is, how does the book go from:

\(\displaystyle \cos \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{y-x\frac{dy}{dx}}{y^{2}}=0\)

to:

\(\displaystyle y-x\frac{d_{y}}{dx}=0\)?
Because when a fraction equals zero, only the numerator can equal zero.
 
Test.... tex works. Good.

Original problem. \(\displaystyle \sin \frac{x}{y}=\frac{1}{2}\)

My work so far.

\(\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx}\sin \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{y\frac{d}{dx}x-x\frac{d}{dx}y}{y^{2}}=0\)

\(\displaystyle \cos \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{y-x\frac{dy}{dx}}{y^{2}}=0\)
OK this far

Now... here's the problem, I get stuck because i'm not seeing why the book says it goes to \(\displaystyle y-x\frac{d_{y}}{dx}=0\)?

I get \(\displaystyle \cos \frac{x}{y}\cdot \frac{-x\frac{dy}{dx}}{y}=0\)?

Edit note: how to make tex equations bigger? seems a little small to read.

Edit 2: Fixed size :D
Separate the two terms, then solve for dy/dx

\(\displaystyle \dfrac{1}{y} \cos\left({\dfrac{x}{y}}\right) - \dfrac{x}{y^2} \cos\left({\dfrac{x}{y}}\right) \dfrac{dy}{dx} = 0\)

\(\displaystyle \dfrac{dy}{dx} = \dfrac{y}{x} \)

Note that you can divide out the cosine because it is not zero (actual value is sqrt(3)/2). It is also "safe" to divide by x because the original equation does not allow the sine to be 0.
 
Confused on that seperation of the two terms.

Are we just using that zero to cancel out the
\(\displaystyle \cos \frac{x}{y}+y^{2}\)?
 
I'll put in the intermediate steps.
Separate the two terms, then solve for dy/dx


\(\displaystyle \dfrac{1}{y} \cos\left({\dfrac{x}{y}}\right) - \dfrac{x}{y^2} \cos\left({\dfrac{x}{y}}\right) \dfrac{dy}{dx} = 0\)

\(\displaystyle \dfrac{x}{y^2} \cos\left({\dfrac{x}{y}}\right) \dfrac{dy}{dx} = \dfrac{1}{y} \cos\left({\dfrac{x}{y}}\right) \)

\(\displaystyle \dfrac{dy}{dx} = \dfrac{\dfrac{1}{y} \cos\left({\dfrac{x}{y}}\right)}{\dfrac{x}{y^2} \cos\left({\dfrac{x}{y}}\right)}\)

\(\displaystyle \dfrac{dy}{dx} = \dfrac{y}{x} \)

Note that you can divide out the cosine because it is not zero (actual value is sqrt(3)/2). It is also "safe" to divide by x because the original equation does not allow the sine to be 0.[/QUOTE]
 
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