Hyperbolic Integration: cos(x)/[1 + sin^2(x)]

johnboy

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I am trying to integrate:

. . .cos(x)/( 1 + (sinx)^2 )

I was thinking it would just be -arccsch(sinx). But when I derived that, instead of getting cosx on top, I was getting cotx. Can anyone help me with this? Thank you!
 
\(\displaystyle \L
y = \arctan (u)\quad \Rightarrow \quad y' = \frac{{du}}{{1 + u^2 }}\)
 
johnboy said:
we have to use hyperbolic trig to answer it though.
Why is that?
Hyperbolic trigonometry has absolutely nothing to do with this problem.
Things are difficult enough without bringing needless functions into play.
 
im not sure, but we have to "use inverse hyperbolic functions to evaluate the integral" :-/...
 
What are the exact instructions that go with this exercise?
As I said above, hyperbolic functions are not involved with ordinary trigonometric functions such as sine and cosine. Such functions form a class known as circular functions. Whereas, hyperbolic functions are based on the exponential function e<SUP>x</SUP>.

If you can give us the instructions, (the name of your textbook would be useful too), that go with the problem, then we may see what your author is trying to do.
 
Single Variable Calculus Early Transcendetals 6th Edition

Section 6.9

"Use inverse hyperbolic functions to evaluate the integrals in Problems 39 through 48."
 
The sensible way to do this problem is with a simple u substitution.

\(\displaystyle u=sin(x)\;\ du=cos(x)dx\)

This gives:

\(\displaystyle \L\\\int\frac{1}{1+u^{2}}du=tan^{-1}(u)=tan^{-1}(sin(x))\)

I've never seen hyperbolics involved in a problem like this. Interesting, yet nonsensical.
 
johnboy said:
is it possible to integrate with hyperbolic trig?
It would be extremely foolish to say that it is not possible.
But two of us have told you that it is highly dubious.
Who is the author of your text? It appears that it is not in my collection.
 
Hello, johnboy!

Are you sure there are no typos?
Nothing make any sense . . .


\(\displaystyle \L\int\frac{\cos x}{1\,+\,\sin^2x}\,dx\)

I was thinking it would just be -arccsch(sinx) . . . really?
But when I derived that, instead of getting \(\displaystyle \cos x\) on top,
I was getting \(\displaystyle \cot x\) . . . How?

The only way to involve hyperbolic functions is to use the identities:
\(\displaystyle \;\;\sin x \:= \:-i\cdot\sinh(ix)\;\;\;\cos x\:=\:\cosh(ix)\)
and I don't think intend to involve complex variables.


If the original problem is correct: \(\displaystyle \L\,\int\frac{\cos x}{1\,+\,\sin^2x}\,dx\)

\(\displaystyle \;\;\)then let: \(\displaystyle u\,=\,\sin x\;\;\Rightarrow\;\;du\,=\,\cos x\,dx\)

Substitute: \(\displaystyle \L\,\int\frac{du}{1\,+\,u^2}\;\)\(\displaystyle =\;\arctan u \,+\,C\;=\;\arctan(\sin x)\,+\,C\)


If the original problem is: \(\displaystyle \L\,\int\frac{\cosh x}{1\,+\,\sinh^2x}\,dx\)

\(\displaystyle \;\;\)then let: \(\displaystyle u \,= \,\sinh x\;\;\Rightarrow\;\;du \,= \,\cosh x\,dx\)

Substitute: \(\displaystyle \L\,\int\frac{du}{1\,+\,u^2}\;\)\(\displaystyle =\;\arctan u\,+\,C\;=\;\arctan(\sinh x)\,+\,C\)


 
Speaking of possible typos, could it be:
\(\displaystyle \L
\int {\frac{{\cos (x)}}{{1 - \sin ^2 (x)}}} = \tanh ^{ - 1} (\sin (x)) + c ?\)
 
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