Laila Mohamed
New member
- Joined
- Oct 11, 2022
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Hi, I have a homework but I can't solve it. Can someone help me ?
Let ϕ : G → H be a homomorphism of groups.
Show that if ϕ is an isomorphism of groups, then its inverse[math]ϕ^-1 : H → G, ϕ(g) → ϕ^−1 (ϕ(g)) = g[/math], is an isomorphism of groups.
I know that ker(ϕ) = e ⇐⇒ injective, but I don't know how to proceed and I completely don't know how to prove that this is surjective too.
Let ϕ : G → H be a homomorphism of groups.
Show that if ϕ is an isomorphism of groups, then its inverse[math]ϕ^-1 : H → G, ϕ(g) → ϕ^−1 (ϕ(g)) = g[/math], is an isomorphism of groups.
I know that ker(ϕ) = e ⇐⇒ injective, but I don't know how to proceed and I completely don't know how to prove that this is surjective too.