Hi,
I was hoping someone could explain to me why if you have a cash flow stream paying a fixed return (say 12%) and you sell off 50% of that cash flow stream in a senior position at a fixed 9% return and the remaining junior position gets the left over cash flow (so returns would be something above 12%), why would that subordinate cash flow position's return decline with a longer hold period? I would have thought with a fixed return coming in and a fixed return being sold off to the senior position, the junior position would also receive a fixed return. However, if you vary the length of the hold, the junior position IRR declines over time while the senior (and overall) position remain constant.
Could someone please help explain that to me? It would be much appreciated.
Thank you!
I was hoping someone could explain to me why if you have a cash flow stream paying a fixed return (say 12%) and you sell off 50% of that cash flow stream in a senior position at a fixed 9% return and the remaining junior position gets the left over cash flow (so returns would be something above 12%), why would that subordinate cash flow position's return decline with a longer hold period? I would have thought with a fixed return coming in and a fixed return being sold off to the senior position, the junior position would also receive a fixed return. However, if you vary the length of the hold, the junior position IRR declines over time while the senior (and overall) position remain constant.
Could someone please help explain that to me? It would be much appreciated.
Thank you!