I see what you mean about it needing to be Abelian.
I have been at this all afternoon and I may have figured something out. I'm not sure if this shows that it it abelian, but let me know:
We have aba<sup>-1</sup>=b<sup>-1</sup>. Taking the inverse of both sides we see: ab<sup>-1</sup>a<sup>-1</sup>=b. Substituting in aba<sup>-1</sup> for b<sup>-1</sup>, we get: a(aba<sup>-1</sup>)a<sup>-1</sup>=b, Or a<sup>2</sup>ba<sup>-2</sup>=b. Which implies a<sup>2</sup>b=ba<sup>2</sup>.
You can also use the fact to show that b=a<sup>2</sup>ba<sup>-2</sup> = a<sup>4</sup>ba<sup>-4</sup> by recursive insertion of b. In this manner I have been able to "produce" the conjecture that b=a^(2k)ba^(-2k) for all integers k>=0 (since k=0 gives b=b). It may be all k, but I haven't had time to think about it.
So, from this I gather that a<sup>2k</sup>b=ba<sup>2k</sup>. Then, this would make the group Abelian for all elements x such that x=a<sup>2k</sup>.
I'm not sure if we can say this, but: For some l, a<sup>2l</sup>=a<sup>-1</sup> since |a| is odd (2l+1), we have a<sup>-1</sup>b=ba<sup>-1</sup>. Then we can multiply on the LHS by a to get b = aba<sup>-1</sup>. As shown above, b=ab<sup>-1</sup>a<sup>-1</sup>, so, aba<sup>-1</sup>=ab<sup>-1</sup>a<sup>-1</sup>. By canceling the a's and a inverses we get b=b<sup>-1</sup>, or b<sup>2</sup>=e.
Let me know your thoughts.
Thanks,
-Daon