monomocoso
New member
- Joined
- Jan 25, 2012
- Messages
- 31
Consider the function f defined by
1) f(x,y) = 0 unless x>0 and \(\displaystyle x^2 < y < 3x^2\)
2) for each x > 0\(\displaystyle f(x, 2x^2) = x\)
3) \(\displaystyle 0 \leq f(x,y) \leq x\) for all (x,y) with x>0
Modify this to get a function g with
\(\displaystyle g_1 (0,0) =g_2 (0,0) = 1\)
yet there is no direction of maximal change.
I know f has no direction of maximal change because\(\displaystyle f_1 (0,0)\)and\(\displaystyle f_2 (0,0) \)are both 0, and so the gradient is zero and the angle between the gradient and any direction vector is undefined. How can this happen when the gradient is 1?
1) f(x,y) = 0 unless x>0 and \(\displaystyle x^2 < y < 3x^2\)
2) for each x > 0\(\displaystyle f(x, 2x^2) = x\)
3) \(\displaystyle 0 \leq f(x,y) \leq x\) for all (x,y) with x>0
Modify this to get a function g with
\(\displaystyle g_1 (0,0) =g_2 (0,0) = 1\)
yet there is no direction of maximal change.
I know f has no direction of maximal change because\(\displaystyle f_1 (0,0)\)and\(\displaystyle f_2 (0,0) \)are both 0, and so the gradient is zero and the angle between the gradient and any direction vector is undefined. How can this happen when the gradient is 1?