Well, that's a problem. Differentiating the function where x is not 0 then evaluating that at x= 0 does not necessarily give the derivative at x= 0.
For x not 0, \(\displaystyle f(x)= x^3 sin(1/x^2)\) so \(\displaystyle f'(x)= 3x^2 sin(1/x^2)- x^3 cos(1/x^2)(-2/x^3)\)\(\displaystyle = 3x^2 sin(1/x^2)+ 2cos(1/x^2)\).
Yes, that is not defined at x= 0 but, since that is the derivative only for h not x, it does not tell us anything about the derivative AT x= 0.
For h not 0, \(\displaystyle f(h)= h^3 sin(1/h^2)\) while f(0)= 0 so \(\displaystyle \frac{f(h)- f(0)}{h}= \frac{h^3 sin(1/h^2)}{h}= h^2 sin(1/h^2)\)
To take the limit as h goes to 0, write it as \(\displaystyle \frac{sin(1/h^2)}{1/h^2}\) and let \(\displaystyle u= 1/h^2\). As h goes to 0, u goes to infinity so this limit is \(\displaystyle \lim_{u\to \infty} \frac{sin(u)}{u}\). As u goes to infinity, sin(u) always lies between -1 and 1 while the denominator, u, goes to infinity so this limit is 0.
The function is differentiable at x= 0 and the derivative there is 0.
Since the limit, as x goes to 0, of f' is not 0 (does not exist) f' is not continuous at 0 so can't be differentiable at x= 0. Therefore f itself is not twice differentiable at x= 0.