bumblebee123
Junior Member
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- Jan 3, 2018
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If \(\displaystyle \alpha\in IV\) then \(\displaystyle 0\le\cos(\alpha)\le 1\\\tan(\alpha)\le 0\)question: Why FALSE??
II The equation \(\displaystyle \tan(x)+\cos(x)=2\) has a solution in \(\displaystyle \left[ { - \frac{\pi }{2},0} \right]\)
can anyone explain this to me? any help would be really appreciated!
Let's look at the first statement. Consider:
[MATH]-1\le\sin(x)\le1[/MATH]
[MATH]-1\le\cos(x)\le1[/MATH]
Even if the sine and cosine functions reached their maxima for the same value of \(x\) (which they don't), what would be the maximum value of their sum?
For the 3rd statement, consider:
[MATH]-\infty<\tan(x)<0[/MATH]
[MATH]0<\sin(x)<1[/MATH]
And so, when you subtract the latter, from the former, what do you get?
No No, the tanx values are NOT infinite. The tanx values go from -infinity to positive infinity and obtains every value in between. That is there is an x value such that tan(x) = 1.3, there is an x value such that tan(x) = -125.6, there is an x value such that tan(x) = 12,365,497,098,000,345,000,000.00125, ....for part 2
the Y values for tanx are infinite, and the maximum Y value for cosx is 1
so the sum of the maximum values would be way bigger than 2
Domain of investigation is -90o → 0oOkay that makes more sense. How can I use this to prove tanx + cosx = 2 is wrong