Can someone give me a mathematical proof to prove that the negation of "for all x" is "there exists an x"
The question you ask goes all the way back to Aristotle in about the second century BCE.
There four types of propositions: \(\mathcal{~A,~~E,~~I,~~O}\)
1) \(\mathcal{~A}\) are universal positive: \((\forall x)[P(x) \Rightarrow Q(x)\) All \(P\) IS \(Q\).
2) \(\mathcal{~E}\) are universal negative: \((\forall x)[P(x) \Rightarrow \neg Q(x)\) No \(P\) IS \(Q\)
3) \(\mathcal{~I}\) are existential positive: \((\exists x)[P(x) \wedge Q(x)\) SOME \(P\) IS \(Q\)
4) \(\mathcal{~O}\) are existential negative: \((\exists x)[P(x) \wedge \neg Q(x)\) SOME \(P\) IS NOT \(Q\).
Now this is known as the Square of Opposition
\(\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
\mathcal{A}&{} {}&{}&{}&\mathcal{E} \\
{}& \nwarrow &{}&{}& \nearrow &{} \\
{}&{}& \nwarrow & \nearrow &{}&{} \\
{}&{}& \swarrow & \searrow &{}&{} \\
{}& \swarrow &{}&{}& \searrow &{} \\
\mathcal{I}&{}&{}&{}&{}&\mathcal{O} \end{array}\)