James Smithson
Junior Member
- Joined
- Nov 6, 2020
- Messages
- 58
I know how it works and I have been answering lots of questions and getting them correct however I have stumbled upon some question that to me makes no sense and I belive it may be a translation issue for me as sometimes I translate it wrong with English as a second language.
The question in hand is saying the following
Let p be a prime number with p (not equal) 3.
Use Fermat’s little theorem to find an integer b such that 3^(8p−4) ≡ b (mod p)
My understanding so far in this topic is that
a^p-1 ≡ 1(mod p)
so im trying to understand the question and i plug in what translates to me so :
a=3?
b=1?
so
a^(8p−4) ≡ 1 (mod p)
but then this is not the rule what is this 8 and 4 and how can i understand with no prior explanation.
I feel very dumb today that I do not understand the way to do it.
thank you for any help it is always appreciated
James
The question in hand is saying the following
Let p be a prime number with p (not equal) 3.
Use Fermat’s little theorem to find an integer b such that 3^(8p−4) ≡ b (mod p)
My understanding so far in this topic is that
a^p-1 ≡ 1(mod p)
so im trying to understand the question and i plug in what translates to me so :
a=3?
b=1?
so
a^(8p−4) ≡ 1 (mod p)
but then this is not the rule what is this 8 and 4 and how can i understand with no prior explanation.
I feel very dumb today that I do not understand the way to do it.
thank you for any help it is always appreciated
James