Well I am certainly not fluent in English. In fact it was about 15 years ago that I realized that I do know a language. That language is mathematics.so you're fluent in fact fluency?
Is this what you are after? My internet search didn't really give me a straightforward idea.Here's one. Compute 37^2 - 36^2 in your head. From previous post by Dr Peterson I know that he could do this. Lets hear from others.
Difference of two squares I can do in my head. More complicated than that, I need tools.Here's one. Compute 37^2 - 36^2 in your head. From previous post by Dr Peterson I know that he could do this. Lets hear from others.
[MATH](a+1)^2-a^2=2a+1[/MATH]Thus the difference between two consecutive squares [MATH]a^2[/MATH] and [MATH](a+1)^2[/MATH] is equal to [MATH]2a+1[/MATH].Here's one. Compute 37^2 - 36^2 in your head. From previous post by Dr Peterson I know that he could do this. Lets hear from others.
Or 37+36 = 73.[MATH](a+1)^2-a^2=2a+1[/MATH]Thus the difference between two consecutive squares [MATH]a^2[/MATH] and [MATH](a+1)^2[/MATH] is equal to [MATH]2a+1[/MATH].
[MATH]37^2-36^2=2×36+1=73[/MATH]
There is only one where the sides differ by 1: 3, 4, 5.Can you generate pythagorean triples where two sides differ by 1? What is the algorithm?
Can you generate pythagorean triples where two sides differ by 1? What is the algorithm?
If n=2k+1, (2k+1)^2 = (k+1)^2-k^2 is total nonsense!3^2 = 5^2 - 4^2----3, 4, 5
5^2 = 13^2 - 12^2----5, 12, 13
7^2 = 25^2-24^2-----7, 24, 25
9^2 = 41^2-40^2-----9, 40, 41
....
If n=2k+1, (2k+1)^2 = (k+1)^2-k^2.
If n is even, this can't be done.