Probability
Full Member
- Joined
- Jan 26, 2012
- Messages
- 431
I have plotted a graph (0,0), (1,2), (3,6), (4,8). The graph produced a linear rise. y = 2x and R^2 = 1.
Basically my understanding is that the closer packed the data is to the linear line then the coefficient becomes very close to or equals 1.
I was then asked to plot another graph (0,0), (1,-2), (3,-6), (4,-8). This is the same graph but the linear line is negative. Looking at the correlation coefficient R^2 = 1.
Now I'd of thought the coefficient R^ = 1 should have been R^ = - 1.
If the data point(s) are not on the regression line, the value of the correlation coefficient is not (- 1), but some value between (- 1) and (1).
When I add the correlation coefficient data to the graphs the value recorded shows as positive for both graphs. Should I take that to mean that the computer software program is not able to show a negative coefficient?
I'm using excel 2007.
Basically my understanding is that the closer packed the data is to the linear line then the coefficient becomes very close to or equals 1.
I was then asked to plot another graph (0,0), (1,-2), (3,-6), (4,-8). This is the same graph but the linear line is negative. Looking at the correlation coefficient R^2 = 1.
Now I'd of thought the coefficient R^ = 1 should have been R^ = - 1.
If the data point(s) are not on the regression line, the value of the correlation coefficient is not (- 1), but some value between (- 1) and (1).
When I add the correlation coefficient data to the graphs the value recorded shows as positive for both graphs. Should I take that to mean that the computer software program is not able to show a negative coefficient?
I'm using excel 2007.