MathNugget
Junior Member
- Joined
- Feb 1, 2024
- Messages
- 195
Suppose p is an odd prime number, and [imath]a \in \mathbb{Z}_p[/imath], [imath]a \neq 0[/imath].
I am interested in the implication:
if [imath]a^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\equiv 1[/imath] (mod p), then a is quadratic residue.
It's pretty clear that [imath]a^{\frac{p-1}{2}+1}\equiv a[/imath] (mod p), and if [imath]\frac{p-1}{2}+1=\frac{p+1}{2}[/imath] is even, [imath]x=a^{\frac{p+1}{4}}[/imath].
What happens if [imath]p \equiv 1[/imath] (mod 4)? I get that there is x so that [imath]X^2\equiv 1[/imath] (mod p), which doesn't really help much.
I am interested in the implication:
if [imath]a^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\equiv 1[/imath] (mod p), then a is quadratic residue.
It's pretty clear that [imath]a^{\frac{p-1}{2}+1}\equiv a[/imath] (mod p), and if [imath]\frac{p-1}{2}+1=\frac{p+1}{2}[/imath] is even, [imath]x=a^{\frac{p+1}{4}}[/imath].
What happens if [imath]p \equiv 1[/imath] (mod 4)? I get that there is x so that [imath]X^2\equiv 1[/imath] (mod p), which doesn't really help much.