FreiesMathe
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- Dec 13, 2015
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Hello, we had a task and solved it, but we aren't sure if it's correct like this. It'd be great if someone could help us c:
Given two functions f,g∈L2(Rd). Is the following estimation correct?
(f∗g)(x)=∫Rdf(x−y)g(y)dy=||fg||1≤||f||2||g||2
We used Hölder's inequality for this.
Thanks for your help
Given two functions f,g∈L2(Rd). Is the following estimation correct?
(f∗g)(x)=∫Rdf(x−y)g(y)dy=||fg||1≤||f||2||g||2
We used Hölder's inequality for this.
Thanks for your help