My question is about differentiating the following...thanks...
Given: ln(y)=-axln(ax).
Given: My question comes before the final answer.
Since ln(ax)=xln(a), why can it not be immediately substituted above as ln(y)=-aln(a)x2, where:
dy . 1
dx y = -2aln(a)x ?
It is not the same as multiplying out as:
dy . 1
dx y =-axaxln(a) + -aln(ax) .
Given: ln(y)=-axln(ax).
Given: My question comes before the final answer.
Since ln(ax)=xln(a), why can it not be immediately substituted above as ln(y)=-aln(a)x2, where:
dy . 1
dx y = -2aln(a)x ?
It is not the same as multiplying out as:
dy . 1
dx y =-axaxln(a) + -aln(ax) .
Last edited: