This is an odd question, but here goes.
Say I have:
f(x) = 5^3
The derivative of this is 0, because the derivative of a constant is zero... However... Let's say that I was actually working this problem out for some reason...
Would it be technically incorrect (calculus-wise) to apply the power rule to this first and then the chain rule? (I know it would be pointless, when a person can just use the constant rule)
For instance, say I worked out f(x) = 5^3 like so using the power rule first and then the chain rule:
f'(x) = [3(5)^2] * [0] = 0
With the [0] meaning 0 is the derivative of 5.
Is this, by the calculus rules, a valid way of doing this problem, albeit long, or is it incorrect? (Can you explain why?)
Say I have:
f(x) = 5^3
The derivative of this is 0, because the derivative of a constant is zero... However... Let's say that I was actually working this problem out for some reason...
Would it be technically incorrect (calculus-wise) to apply the power rule to this first and then the chain rule? (I know it would be pointless, when a person can just use the constant rule)
For instance, say I worked out f(x) = 5^3 like so using the power rule first and then the chain rule:
f'(x) = [3(5)^2] * [0] = 0
With the [0] meaning 0 is the derivative of 5.
Is this, by the calculus rules, a valid way of doing this problem, albeit long, or is it incorrect? (Can you explain why?)