Grant Bonner
New member
- Joined
- Aug 27, 2009
- Messages
- 13
Define f: (0,1)-> R by f(x) = x cos (1/x). Does f have a limit at 0?
I have no idea how to do this either. I can see that as x approaches 0, that the fuction oscillates more quickly. I have the proof for sin (1/x) and know that there is no limit as x approaches 0, however the x cos x throws me off. I have a feeling that this fuction does have a limit at 0 and that the limit is 0.
I have no idea how to do this either. I can see that as x approaches 0, that the fuction oscillates more quickly. I have the proof for sin (1/x) and know that there is no limit as x approaches 0, however the x cos x throws me off. I have a feeling that this fuction does have a limit at 0 and that the limit is 0.