Sorry...I was told to use the equation I gave in the previous problem...however it should have been: sqrt((-sinx)^2-(cosx)^2+(1)^2)dt. Then evaluate it from 0 to 2 pi. So in that case could I reduce the sinx^2 + cosx^2 to 1? I would then be left to integrate the sqrt of 2? Thanks and sorry for the mistake!
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