Anonymous11
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- Joined
- Sep 21, 2017
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- 3
Definite integral: ∫(tan^3(x)+tan(x))dx = ∫tan(x)(tan^2(x)+1)dx = ∫ tan(x) (1/cos^2(x
∫(tan^3(x)+tan(x))dx = ∫tan(x)(tan^2(x)+1)dx = ∫ tan(x) (1/cos^2(x) ) dx
And from there I say t=tan(x) => dt= 1/cos^2(x) dx and then ∫ t dt = t^2/2+c which yields tan^2(x)/2+c
But if I solve this way : ∫ tan(x) (1/cos^2(x) ) dx =∫ sin(x)/cos^3(x) dx
and then t=cos(x) => dt=-sin(x) dx
so it equals -∫ 1/t^3 dt =1/(2t^2) +c so substituing back it equals 1/(2cos^2(x))+c
What troubles me is that the two results are not equal .
Is there anything wrong ?
∫(tan^3(x)+tan(x))dx = ∫tan(x)(tan^2(x)+1)dx = ∫ tan(x) (1/cos^2(x) ) dx
And from there I say t=tan(x) => dt= 1/cos^2(x) dx and then ∫ t dt = t^2/2+c which yields tan^2(x)/2+c
But if I solve this way : ∫ tan(x) (1/cos^2(x) ) dx =∫ sin(x)/cos^3(x) dx
and then t=cos(x) => dt=-sin(x) dx
so it equals -∫ 1/t^3 dt =1/(2t^2) +c so substituing back it equals 1/(2cos^2(x))+c
What troubles me is that the two results are not equal .
Is there anything wrong ?