Greetings:
Why is it that we define ln(x) as ∫(1/t) dt ; (t1, t2) = (1, x), rather than Ln(x) = y if and only if ey = x; x > 0 ? I understand that the integral does indeed have value ln(x) and that such definition is therefore valid. Is there some advantage to this definition? Or is it simply intended to emphasize the "natural" nature of the log base e?
Thank you kindly.
Rich B.
Why is it that we define ln(x) as ∫(1/t) dt ; (t1, t2) = (1, x), rather than Ln(x) = y if and only if ey = x; x > 0 ? I understand that the integral does indeed have value ln(x) and that such definition is therefore valid. Is there some advantage to this definition? Or is it simply intended to emphasize the "natural" nature of the log base e?
Thank you kindly.
Rich B.