I'mLearning
New member
- Joined
- Jan 22, 2024
- Messages
- 10
Do you know if [math]\mathbf{k}\cdot\nabla\times(\mathbf{a}\cdot\nabla\mathbf{a})[/math] can be rewritten?
If so, which rules are applied?
EDIT: The term seems to equal [math](\mathbf{a}\cdot\nabla\mathbf{k}\cdot\nabla\times\mathbf{a}) + (\mathbf{k}\cdot\nabla\times\mathbf{a}\nabla\cdot\mathbf{a})[/math] Can that be true?
If so, which rules are applied?
EDIT: The term seems to equal [math](\mathbf{a}\cdot\nabla\mathbf{k}\cdot\nabla\times\mathbf{a}) + (\mathbf{k}\cdot\nabla\times\mathbf{a}\nabla\cdot\mathbf{a})[/math] Can that be true?