Convergence..

Daniel_Feldman

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Can someone tell me why, between the alternating series test and the p-series test, I'm getting stuck?


I need to determine the values of p for which the series from 1 to infinity, of (-1)^(n-1)/n^p will converge.

I know that for the p-series 1/n^p, it converges for p>1. This one, however, looks like an alternating series, and somewhere I'm confusing myself...I think.
 
Hello, Daniel!

Can someone tell me why, between the alternating series test and the p-series test, I'm getting stuck?
It can be confusing . . . it took me some time to wake up.

Determine the values of p for which the series \(\displaystyle \L\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\,\frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^p}\) will converge.
Since it is an alternating series, it's a bit easier.

An alternating series converges if the terms go to zero.

When does 1np0\displaystyle \,\frac{1}{n^p}\,\to\,0 ? . . . It goes to 0 for any p>0\displaystyle p\,>\,0

~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~

I had to baby-talk my way through it . . .

We know it coverges for p>1\displaystyle p\,>\,1 . . . but what about: 0<p1\displaystyle \,0\,<\,p\,\leq\,1

When p=1\displaystyle p\,=\,1, we have the alternating harmonic series . . . which converges.

Consider p=19\displaystyle \,p\,=\,\frac{1}{9}, then the general term is: \(\displaystyle \L\,\frac{1}{\sqrt[9]{n}}\) . . . and it goes to 0.

Even if p=11000\displaystyle p\,=\,\frac{1}{1000}, the general term goes to 0.


Note: we do not want p=0\displaystyle p\,=\,0.
The series becomes: (1)n1=11+1\displaystyle \sum (-1)^{n-1} \:=\:1\,-\,1\,+\,1\,-\,\cdots\: which diverges.
 
You may want to consider absolute convergance.
 
soroban said:
Hello, Daniel!

Can someone tell me why, between the alternating series test and the p-series test, I'm getting stuck?
It can be confusing . . . it took me some time to wake up.

[quote:2fp6skwc]Determine the values of p for which the series \(\displaystyle \L\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\,\frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^p}\) will converge.
Since it is an alternating series, it's a bit easier.

An alternating series converges if the terms go to zero.

When does 1np0\displaystyle \,\frac{1}{n^p}\,\to\,0 ? . . . It goes to 0 for any p>0\displaystyle p\,>\,0

~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~

I had to baby-talk my way through it . . .

We know it coverges for p>1\displaystyle p\,>\,1 . . . but what about: 0<p1\displaystyle \,0\,<\,p\,\leq\,1

When p=1\displaystyle p\,=\,1, we have the alternating harmonic series . . . which converges.

Consider p=19\displaystyle \,p\,=\,\frac{1}{9}, then the general term is: \(\displaystyle \L\,\frac{1}{\sqrt[9]{n}}\) . . . and it goes to 0.

Even if p=11000\displaystyle p\,=\,\frac{1}{1000}, the general term goes to 0.


Note: we do not want p=0\displaystyle p\,=\,0.
The series becomes: (1)n1=11+1\displaystyle \sum (-1)^{n-1} \:=\:1\,-\,1\,+\,1\,-\,\cdots\: which diverges.[/quote:2fp6skwc]


Thanks soroban...quick question though.

For this alternating series (by definition), it converges if the limit as n approaches infinity of 1/n^p=0 and if 1/n^p is always decreasing. How do you go from that to "it converges if its terms go to 0"?


Maybe I'm just not thinking straight right now....
 
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