soroban said:
Hello, Daniel!
Can someone tell me why, between the alternating series test and the p-series test, I'm getting stuck?
It can be confusing . . . it took me some time to wake up.
[quote:2fp6skwc]Determine the values of p for which the series \(\displaystyle \L\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\,\frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^p}\) will converge.
Since it is an alternating series, it's a bit easier.
An alternating series converges if the terms go to zero.
When does
np1→0 ? . . . It goes to 0 for any
p>0
~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~
I had to baby-talk my way through it . . .
We know it coverges for
p>1 . . . but what about:
0<p≤1
When
p=1, we have the alternating harmonic series . . . which converges.
Consider
p=91, then the general term is: \(\displaystyle \L\,\frac{1}{\sqrt[9]{n}}\) . . . and it goes to 0.
Even if
p=10001, the general term goes to 0.
Note: we do
not want
p=0.
The series becomes:
∑(−1)n−1=1−1+1−⋯ which diverges.[/quote:2fp6skwc]
Thanks soroban...quick question though.
For this alternating series (by definition), it converges if the limit as n approaches infinity of 1/n^p=0 and if 1/n^p is always decreasing. How do you go from that to "it converges if its terms go to 0"?
Maybe I'm just not thinking straight right now....