There appears to be a mistake in the statement of the question.
The derivative is \(\displaystyle \cos \left( {f\left( {{e^{g(x)}}} \right)} \right)f'\left( {{e^{g(x)}}} \right)g'\left( x \right){e^{g(x)}}\)
The difficulty is that we do not know what \(\displaystyle g\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) equals.
If it were at \(\displaystyle x=0\), then it is doable.
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