Yes, because diving by
z2 leads nowhere. The division by
1 keeps it going. I can divide by whatever I want to, except zero, of course.
You can also formalize it by the Euclidean algorithm:
1−z2z4−z6etc.=1⋅(1+z2)−z2=−z2⋅(1+z2)+z4=z4⋅(1+z2)−z6=−z6⋅(1+z2)+z8but the long division is easier and more known. The algorithm of dividing a polynomial
p(z) by a polynomial
q(z)
is always
p(z)=s(z)⋅q(z)+r(z) no matter what
p(z),q(z) are. The example is a bit of a downside-up procedure in this specific case since the degree of
r(z) becomes larger rather than smaller. This means mathematically that the series is only a valid approximation for small values of
z around
z=0.
If you look at the thread you might observe that I already changed from your
z2+1 in post #1 to my
1+z2 in post #2. That was on purpose!
In case you insist of the usual measure that the degree of the remainder
r(z) in Euclid's algorithm becomes smaller and smaller, then you have to transform the variable
z↦1/x and divide
1+z21=1+x211=x2x2+11=x2+1x2instead and re-transform it by
x↦1/z afterward. I simply avoided these unnecessary steps by dividing
1:(1+z2).