Collatz conjecture

Alon

New member
Joined
Aug 11, 2021
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Hello, I am Alon,
I have proven something related to the collatz conjecture problem and I would like you, if not to busy, to tell me if it is something known or unknown.
Thanks a lot
 
We can't say unless you tell us what you've proved. At the moment, from our perspective, since your proof is unknown to us it's either an unknown known OR an unknown unknown :LOL:. (RIP Donald Rumsfeld)

I see that there's possibly a significant prize (of around a million $) being offered for a complete proof, unless this is fake news. If you're concerned about other people claiming your discovery, then I'm not sure what approach you ought to take. Perhaps you should consider seeking advice from a legal professional before sharing it with anyone.

I'm not sure anyone here will be able to confirm if your discovery is genuinely new (I assume that you've already searched the internet?)
 
Oh right
I have proven that the collatz conjecture is true if and only if there are no non trivial cycles
Do you think it is known or unknown?
 
Maybe tell us what you think you have proved without offering the proof. Some of us here will be able to tell you if it is already known?
 
I have proven that the collatz conjecture is true if and only if there are no non trivial cycles

As I understand it, whether or not any non trivial-cycles exist is the very basis of the conjecture. By definition, if there are non-trivial cycles, then the conjecture is false; if there are not, then the conjecture is true. The statement you've made amounts to "the Collatz conjecture is true if and only if it is true."
 
If there are not non trivial cycles, is the collatz conjecture true?
 
As I understand it, whether or not any non trivial-cycles exist is the very basis of the conjecture. By definition, if there are non-trivial cycles, then the conjecture is false; if there are not, then the conjecture is true. The statement you've made amounts to "the Collatz conjecture is true if and only if it is true."

There's also the possibility of a sequence that starts somewhere finite and heads off towards infinity. But, maybe it's been proved that this isn't possibile by some very clever person!? Maybe this is what @Alon is claiming?

See "Collatz trajectories" on this page http://oeis.org/wiki/3x+1_problem
 
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