I'm not entirely certain if this is the correct message board to post this on, but I figure this class is called the History of the Calculus, so it seems like the best fit.
I actually have the solution to the problem, thus my question pertains to why this solution works, my questions are bold.
The problem: the cissoid is the curve \(\displaystyle y=x^{3/2}(1-x)^{-1/2}\) (0<x<1) Prove that y has one derivative at x= 0 and not two.
The solution: take the derivative of y which gives you \(\displaystyle y'=(1/2)x^{1/2}(1-x)^{-3/2}(3-2x)\) for x>0 (why only for x>o?)
then \(\displaystyle {y(x)-y(0)}/x = y/x = x^{1/2}(1-x)^{-1/2}\) which goes to 0 as x goes to 0. (how is this "taking the derivative"?)
finally \(\displaystyle y'/x = (1/2)x^{-1/2}(3-2x)\) which goes to infinity as x goes to zero so y''(0) does not exist (how is this taking "the second derivative"?)
Thanks!
I actually have the solution to the problem, thus my question pertains to why this solution works, my questions are bold.
The problem: the cissoid is the curve \(\displaystyle y=x^{3/2}(1-x)^{-1/2}\) (0<x<1) Prove that y has one derivative at x= 0 and not two.
The solution: take the derivative of y which gives you \(\displaystyle y'=(1/2)x^{1/2}(1-x)^{-3/2}(3-2x)\) for x>0 (why only for x>o?)
then \(\displaystyle {y(x)-y(0)}/x = y/x = x^{1/2}(1-x)^{-1/2}\) which goes to 0 as x goes to 0. (how is this "taking the derivative"?)
finally \(\displaystyle y'/x = (1/2)x^{-1/2}(3-2x)\) which goes to infinity as x goes to zero so y''(0) does not exist (how is this taking "the second derivative"?)
Thanks!