\(\displaystyle y=f(x)\) implies:
\(\displaystyle x=f^{-1}(y)\)
and so:
\(\displaystyle \dfrac{dy}{dx}=f'(x)\)
\(\displaystyle \dfrac{dx}{dy}=(f^{-1}(y))'\)
Multiplying these equations, we find:
\(\displaystyle 1=f'(x)(f^{-1}(y))'\)
So, we must have:
\(\displaystyle 1=f'(x_0)(f^{-1}(y_0))'\)
So, what can we conclude then if \(\displaystyle f'(x_0)=m\)?