Brain teaser

elioruzan

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Hi,
I stumbled upon this question on Facebook and I tried to solve it unsuccessfully.
I saw in the comments people talking about symmetry in their solutions but I didn't understand them.
To me it seems there is insufficient info because the heights and widths of A and B share constraints, but there are still 2 variables.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
 

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Not sure which symmetry they had in mind... I would try the following approach:
Pick an arbitrary height for A, call it h. What's the area of A? Now, what is the maximum area of B? It will be a function of h. What's the total area? Again, this is a function of h. Maximize it.
 
If you use polar coordinates you will only have two angles as variables and [imath] f(\varphi_a,\varphi_b)=\sin(2\varphi_a)+\sin(2\varphi_b)-2\sin(\varphi_a )\cos(\varphi_b) [/imath] but the solution that WA has found is a bit strange (~78,7%):
 
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Hi,
I stumbled upon this question on Facebook and I tried to solve it unsuccessfully.
I saw in the comments people talking about symmetry in their solutions but I didn't understand them.
To me it seems there is insufficient info because the heights and widths of A and B share constraints, but there are still 2 variables.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
You can solve the problem by symmetry or Lagrange multiplier. But I prefer polar coordinate.

Let [imath]A_1[/imath] be the area of the first rectangle and let [imath]A_2[/imath] be the area of the second rectangle.

[imath]A_1 = x_1y_1[/imath]
[imath]A_2 = x_2y_2[/imath]

[imath]x = r\cos\theta[/imath]
[imath]y = r\sin\theta[/imath]

Then

[imath]A_1 = r^2\cos\theta_1\sin\theta_1[/imath]
[imath]A_2 = r^2\cos\theta_2\sin\theta_2[/imath]

Or

[imath]\displaystyle A_1 = \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_1[/imath]

[imath]\displaystyle A_2 = \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_2[/imath]

[imath]\displaystyle A = A_1 + A_2 = \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_1 + \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_2 = \frac{r^2}{2}(\sin2\theta_1 + \sin2\theta_2)[/imath]

Now think about it. To get the maximum area, you want [imath]\sin2\theta_1 + \sin2\theta_2[/imath] to be maximum.

Also you must have noticed that because of the symmetry of the two rectangles (they have the same area), [imath]\theta_1 = \theta_2[/imath].

[imath]\displaystyle A = \frac{r^2}{2}(\sin2\theta + \sin2\theta) = r^2\sin2\theta = r^2[/imath]

Finding the angle [imath]\theta[/imath] will help you to find the length of each leg of the rectangle by substituting back in [imath]x[/imath] and [imath]y[/imath].
 
Where is your negative term? I have
[math]\begin{array}{lll} A&=\sin \varphi_a\cdot \cos \varphi_a\\ B&=\cos \varphi_b \cdot (\sin \varphi_b -\sin \varphi_a)\\ 2A&=2\sin \varphi_a\cdot \cos \varphi_a=\sin(2\varphi_a)\\ 2B&=2\cos \varphi_b \cdot \sin \varphi_b- 2\cos \varphi_b\sin \varphi_a\\ &=\sin(2\varphi_b)- 2\cos \varphi_b\sin \varphi_a\\ 2A&=\sin(2\varphi_b)- 2\cos \varphi_b\sin \varphi_a+\sin(2\varphi_a) \end{array}[/math]and WA says it is [imath] \max \{2A\} \approx 1,23607 \text{ at } (\varphi_a, \varphi_b) \approx (0.553574, 1.01722) [/imath] which covers about [imath] 78.7\% [/imath] of the area.
 
Where is your negative term? I have
[math]\begin{array}{lll} A&=\sin \varphi_a\cdot \cos \varphi_a\\ B&=\cos \varphi_b \cdot (\sin \varphi_b -\sin \varphi_a)\\ 2A&=2\sin \varphi_a\cdot \cos \varphi_a=\sin(2\varphi_a)\\ 2B&=2\cos \varphi_b \cdot \sin \varphi_b- 2\cos \varphi_b\sin \varphi_a\\ &=\sin(2\varphi_b)- 2\cos \varphi_b\sin \varphi_a\\ 2A&=\sin(2\varphi_b)- 2\cos \varphi_b\sin \varphi_a+\sin(2\varphi_a) \end{array}[/math]and WA says it is [imath] \max \{2A\} \approx 1,23607 \text{ at } (\varphi_a, \varphi_b) \approx (0.553574, 1.01722) [/imath] which covers about [imath] 78.7\% [/imath] of the area.
I apologize. I have just realized that my approach will let the two rectangles overlapping which is wrong!
 
You can solve the problem by symmetry or Lagrange multiplier. But I prefer polar coordinate.

Let [imath]A_1[/imath] be the area of the first rectangle and let [imath]A_2[/imath] be the area of the second rectangle.

[imath]A_1 = x_1y_1[/imath]
[imath]A_2 = x_2y_2[/imath]

[imath]x = r\cos\theta[/imath]
[imath]y = r\sin\theta[/imath]

Then

[imath]A_1 = r^2\cos\theta_1\sin\theta_1[/imath]
[imath]A_2 = r^2\cos\theta_2\sin\theta_2[/imath]

Or

[imath]\displaystyle A_1 = \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_1[/imath]

[imath]\displaystyle A_2 = \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_2[/imath]

[imath]\displaystyle A = A_1 + A_2 = \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_1 + \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_2 = \frac{r^2}{2}(\sin2\theta_1 + \sin2\theta_2)[/imath]

Now think about it. To get the maximum area, you want [imath]\sin2\theta_1 + \sin2\theta_2[/imath] to be maximum.

Also you must have noticed that because of the symmetry of the two rectangles (they have the same area), [imath]\theta_1 = \theta_2[/imath].

[imath]\displaystyle A = \frac{r^2}{2}(\sin2\theta + \sin2\theta) = r^2\sin2\theta = r^2[/imath]

Finding the angle [imath]\theta[/imath] will help you to find the length of each leg of the rectangle by substituting back in [imath]x[/imath] and [imath]y[/imath].
I will do my calculations again, but this time I will get rid of the overlapping area.

Let [imath]A_1[/imath] be the area of the first rectangle and let [imath]A_2[/imath] be the area of the second rectangle.

[imath]A_1 = x_1y_1[/imath]
[imath]A_2 = x_2y_2 - x_2y_1[/imath]

g54895599.png

[imath]x = r\cos\theta[/imath]
[imath]y = r\sin\theta[/imath]

Then

[imath]A_1 = r^2\cos\theta_1\sin\theta_1[/imath]
[imath]A_2 = r^2\cos\theta_2\sin\theta_2 - r^2\cos\theta_2\sin\theta_1[/imath]

Or

[imath]\displaystyle A_1 = \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_1[/imath]

[imath]\displaystyle A_2 = \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_2 - r^2\cos\theta_2\sin\theta_1[/imath]

[imath]\displaystyle A = A_1 + A_2 = \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_1 + \frac{r^2}{2}\sin2\theta_2 - r^2\cos\theta_2\sin\theta_1[/imath]

Now let us assume that the two rectangles are inside a unit circle in the first quadrant.

[imath]\displaystyle A = \frac{1}{2}(\sin2\theta_1 + \sin2\theta_2) - \cos\theta_2\sin\theta_1[/imath]

It is not easy to find by hand when [imath]A[/imath] is a maximum, so you will have to use a CAS, W|A, or any other approximation methods.

I get [imath]\theta_1 \approx 0.553574 \ \ \ \ [/imath] and [imath] \ \ \ \ \theta_2 \approx 1.01722[/imath]

So, the maximum area of the two rectangles when [imath]r = 1[/imath] is:

[imath]\displaystyle A = \frac{1}{2}(\sin2\theta_1 + \sin2\theta_2) - \cos\theta_2\sin\theta_1[/imath]

where [imath]\theta_1[/imath] and [imath]\theta_2[/imath] as mentioned above.

Or in general, the maximum area is:

[imath]\displaystyle A = \frac{r^2}{2}(\sin2\theta_1 + \sin2\theta_2 - 2\cos\theta_2\sin\theta_1)[/imath]
 
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Or in general, the maximum area is:

[imath]\displaystyle A = \frac{r^2}{2}(\sin2\theta_1 + \sin2\theta_2 - 2\cos\theta_2\sin\theta_1)[/imath]
Just to be clear about my last sentence. I meant that this is the general area of the two rectangles (inscribed inside a circle in the first quadrant) and if you want to maximize it, choose a radius and then use a CAS, W|A, or any other approximation method to get the angles.
 
BTW, [imath]\tan \theta_1 = \frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2}, \tan\theta_2 = \frac{\sqrt{5}+1}{2}[/imath] and [imath]\theta_1 + \theta_2 = \frac{\pi}{2}[/imath], i.e. angles of the golden ratio.
Beautiful.

I did not even think about it. Nice catch!

😁

And here is the magic: The maximum area is:

[imath]\large A_{\text{max}} = r^2\left(\frac{\sqrt{5} - 1}{2}\right)[/imath]

where [imath]\large r[/imath] is the radius of the arc.

Thanks to the golden ratio!

Did anyone arrive to this conclusion?

🤔
 
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BTW, [imath]\tan \theta_1 = \frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2}, \tan\theta_2 = \frac{\sqrt{5}+1}{2}[/imath] and [imath]\theta_1 + \theta_2 = \frac{\pi}{2}[/imath], i.e. angles of the golden ratio.
Beautiful. Is there a mathematical derivation or did you get there by the numeric solutions?

I had the following chain of associations: golden ratio --> Fibanocci numbers --> Archimedean spiral --> squaring the circle.

1729687924700.png

(Image source: https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Archimedische_Spirale)

I have no idea whether this works for the given problem statement, but whenever Fibonacci numbers appear, there is likely something mathematical behind them.
 
Beautiful. Is there a mathematical derivation or did you get there by the numeric solutions?
I got numerical solutions first, then figured out formal derivation, but the latter is somewhat hairy -- I might try cleaning it up and posting later.
 
I couldn't follow your argument about the golden ratio, but I found out how to get the exact values if we assume that [imath] \varphi_a+\varphi_b=\dfrac{\pi}{2}. [/imath] This appears to be the "symmetry argument" the OP spoke about. Here it goes:

Assume [imath] \varphi_a+\varphi_b=\dfrac{\pi}{2} [/imath] and let [imath] f=f(\varphi_a,\varphi_b)=A+B. [/imath] Then
[math]\begin{array}{lll} f&=\sin \varphi_a\cdot \cos \varphi_a+\cos \varphi_b \cdot (\sin \varphi_b -\sin \varphi_a)\\ &=\sin\varphi_a\cdot\cos\varphi_a+\cos((\pi/2)-\varphi_a)\cdot(\sin((\pi/2)-\varphi_a)-\sin\varphi_a)\\ &=\sin\varphi_a\cdot\cos\varphi_a+\sin\varphi_a \cdot (\cos\varphi_a-\sin\varphi_a)\\ &=\sin(2\varphi_a)-\sin^2\varphi_a=\sin(2\varphi_a)-1+\cos^2\varphi_a\\ &=\sin(2\varphi_a)-1+\dfrac{1}{2}(1+\cos(2\varphi_a))\\ 2f&=-1 + \cos(2 \varphi_a) + 2 \sin(2 \varphi_a)\\ 2f'&=-2\sin(2\varphi_a)+2\cos(2\varphi_a)=0 \Longrightarrow \tan(2\varphi_a)=2\Longrightarrow \varphi_a=\dfrac{1}{2}\tan^{-1}(2)\, , \,\varphi_b=\dfrac{\pi}{2}-\dfrac{1}{2}\tan^{-1}(2) \end{array}[/math]
This yields the numerical values
[math] \max\{2f\} \approx 1,23607\text{ and }f \approx 0.618035\approx 78.7\% \cdot \dfrac{\pi}{4}\text{ at } (\varphi_a, \varphi_b)\approx (0,553574, 1,01722). [/math]
Remains to prove why the sum of the two angles to the upper right corners has to be [imath] 90°. [/imath]

And, of course, why [math] \tan\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\tan^{-1}(2)\right) = \dfrac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2},[/math] and
[math] \tan\left(\dfrac{\pi}{2}-\dfrac{1}{2}\tan^{-1}(2)\right) = \dfrac{\sqrt{5}+1}{2}. [/math]
 
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Did anyone arrive to this conclusion?

🤔
Yes, the Japanese blogger who claims to have "created" the problem did arrive at the same answer, here.
(Based on some unsubstantiated assumptions).

I have also attached an English version of his post (for anyone whose browser doesn't offer to translate it).

PS: I note that you have generalized your solution (
👍) but the original problem did specify that the radius was 1.
 

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And, of course, why [math] \tan\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\tan^{-1}(2)\right) = \dfrac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2},[/math] and
[math] \tan\left(\dfrac{\pi}{2}-\dfrac{1}{2}\tan^{-1}(2)\right) = \dfrac{\sqrt{5}+1}{2}. [/math]
At least this part was easy:

Let [imath] c=\dfrac{1}{2}\tan^{-1}(2)[/imath] and [imath] \tan(c)=x.[/imath] Then
[math]\begin{array}{lll} \tan(2c)&=2=\dfrac{2\tan(c)}{1-\tan^2(c)}=\dfrac{2x}{1-x^2}\\ 0&=x^2+x-1\Longrightarrow x_{1,2}=-\dfrac{1}{2}\pm\sqrt{\dfrac{1}{4}+1}=\dfrac{-1\pm\sqrt{5}}{2}\\ \tan(c)&=\dfrac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2}\\[12pt] \tan\left(\dfrac{\pi}{2}-c\right)&=-\tan\left(c-\dfrac{\pi}{2}\right)=\cot(c)=\dfrac{1}{\tan(c)}=\dfrac{1}{x}\\ &=\dfrac{2}{\sqrt{5}-1}=\dfrac{2(\sqrt{5}+1)}{5-1}=\dfrac{\sqrt{5}+1}{2} \end{array}[/math]
Now for the "symmetry argument"...
 
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