If \(\displaystyle \mathcal{A}=(0,2)\cup [3,4]\) then \(\displaystyle \operatorname{lub}(\mathcal{A})=4~\&~\operatorname{glb}(\mathcal{A})=0\).im confused, is this set bounded? and if so, which are the upper and lower bounds.
(0,2) union [3,4]
Please state the exact wording of the problem you are working on. Details matter!hi,
im confused, is this set bounded? and if so, which are the upper and lower bounds.
(0,2) union [3,4]
i think that lower bounds are 0 and -1 but i dont have any idea about the upper ones.
i'd like some help,thanks
Do you know what the union of the two sets equal?hi,
im confused, is this set bounded? and if so, which are the upper and lower bounds.
(0,2) union [3,4]
i think that lower bounds are 0 and -1 but i dont have any idea about the upper ones.
i'd like some help,thanks
If \(\displaystyle \mathcal{A}=(0,2)\cup [3,4]\) then \(\displaystyle \operatorname{lub}(\mathcal{A})=4~\&~\operatorname{glb}(\mathcal{A})=0\).
Take note that \(\displaystyle 4\in\mathcal{A}\text{ while }0\notin\mathcal{A}\).
To bitcoin, I agree that it would be helpful if you would post more about this questionPlease state the exact wording of the problem you are working on. Details matter!
\(\displaystyle \bf\text{YES, }\sup(S)=4~\&~\inf(S)=0 \)regarding Infimum and supremum of this set,i just found that Inf S=0 and Sup S=4
am i correct?
There are several papers written on quantification issuers with the way you put these definitions.an upper bound b is a least upper bound (or supremum), if b ≤ b’ for any other upper bound b’ — we denote it by sup S an lower bound a is a greatest lower bound (or infimum), if a ≥ a’ for any other lower bound a’ — we denote it by inf S
so because lower bounds of that set were 0 and 1/2 i thought from the infimum definition that a>=a' -> 1/2>=0 for any other bound a' which is 0,and denoted the infimum of the set as 1/2. does the same thing happen with the supremum?
an upper bound b is a least upper bound (or supremum), if b ≤ b’ for any other upper bound b’ — we denote it by sup S
an lower bound a is a greatest lower bound (or infimum), if a ≥ a’ for any other lower bound a’ — we denote it by inf S
so because lower bounds of that set were 0 and 1/2 i thought from the infimum definition that a>=a' -> 1/2>=0 for any other bound a' which is 0,and denoted the infimum of the set as 1/2.
does the same thing happen with the supremum?
Please DO NOT DO THAT! What set are you talking about? We don't know.upper bounds of the set are : 1 and 2
my friend told me that there is no supremum
b= 2 is a upper bound, and b'=1 is another upper bound.
from the def of the supremum, b<=b' so 2<=1 which is not true, and so this set has no supremum.
thats my thought .
btw my friend told me that there is no supremum here and im struggling to find out why.