If for two sequences \(\displaystyle f(n), g(n)\) with \(\displaystyle g(n)\geq 2\) we have \(\displaystyle f(n)=O(g(n))\),
then \(\displaystyle log(f(n))=O(log(g(n)))\).
Does this continue to hold if we allow \(\displaystyle g(n)<2\)?
I don't see anything requiring \(\displaystyle g(n)\in \mathbb{N}\) especially since \(\displaystyle \log g(n)\) wouldn't otherwise be.
Notation