Assistance needed: Real Analysis

Euroman24

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Joined
May 23, 2006
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4
Hi

Given the function (tan(x))β\displaystyle (tan(x))^{-\beta}. Determine for which values of βR\displaystyle \beta \in \mathbb{R}, where x]0,π2[\displaystyle x \in ]0, \frac{\pi}{2} [

1) Can be integreated for beta = 0.

2) Can be integrated for β=π2\displaystyle \beta = \frac{\pi}{2}

3) Can be integrated on interval ]0,π2[\displaystyle ]0,\frac{\pi}{2}[

Solution

1)

If β=0\displaystyle \beta = 0 then I get Iβ=0=0π21dx=π2\displaystyle I_{\beta = 0} = \int_{0} ^{\frac{\pi}{2}}1 dx = \frac{\pi}{2}

Since x=π2\displaystyle x = \frac{\pi}{2} is endpoint of the interval for x, then this integral Iβ=0π2tan(x)βdx\displaystyle I_{\beta} = \int_{0} ^{\frac{\pi}{2}} tan(x)^{-\beta} dx can be integrated for the value beta = 0.

Could anyone please inform me if my conclusion here is correct?

2)

For β=π2\displaystyle \beta = {\frac{\pi}{2}} then that must I need to solve the integral
Iβ=π2=0π2tan(x)βdx\displaystyle I_{\beta = {\frac{\pi}{2}}} = \int_{0} ^{\frac{\pi}{2}} tan(x)^{-\beta} dx ??

In order to calculate the integral above, I have tried to construct a reduction formula for the integral, but I'm stuck here

Iβ=tan(x)βln(cos(x))+(1β)tan(x)β(cos(x))2ln(cos(x))dx\displaystyle I_{\beta} = -tan(x)^{-\beta} \cdot ln(cos(x)) + (1-\beta) \cdot \int \frac{ \cdot tan(x)^{-\beta}}{(cos(x))^2} \cdot ln(cos(x)) dx

Could anybody please give me a hint on if I'm on the right path to solve this problem?

Sincerely Yours
Euroman24
 
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