antiderivative for sinx/(1+x^2) ????

borderking

New member
Joined
Jun 5, 2007
Messages
3
Hi, there...so I've been learning all about integration by partial fractions, substitution, and trig substitutions. I ran across this problem on a hw assignment though, and I can't figure out which category it falls under.
It asks for the indefinite integral of sin(x)/(1+x^2). That denominator looks like a trig substitution using tangent, but then there's that sin(x) on the top that's throwing me. Is this possible?
Thanks so much...
 
Looks like you're correct. This one isn't solvable by elementary means.

I ran it through Maple and it gave me:

\(\displaystyle \L\\\frac{1}{2}i[S\text{i}(x+i)cosh(1)-iC\text{i}(x+i)sinh(1)]-\frac{1}{2}i[S\text{i}(x-i)cosh(1)+iC\text{i}(x-i)sinh(1)]\)
 
Or, you could look at the integral as this:

\(\displaystyle \L\ \int \sum_{k=0}^{\infty\\ \\) \(\displaystyle (-1)^k\frac{Tan^{2k + 1}m}{(2k + 1)!}\ dm\)

where \(\displaystyle x = Tan(m)\). This would be very difficult to represent in closed form. Edit: It took 9 times to get that thing up there right. :twisted:
 
Yes, Morson is on to something. Maybe you could use the Taylor series for sinx/(1+x^2).
 
Well, let me add something...I didn't think this was relevant, but the actual problem was a definite integral, and the integrand was [cosx/sqrt(1+sinx)] + sinx/(1+x^2).
The first fraction seemed simple, allowing u=(1+sinx). It was the second fraction that had me baffled. But the fact that there was another fraction in front or the fact that it was actually a definite integral doesn't matter, does it? I mean, sinx=(1+x^2) isn't an even or odd function, so I don't see how the limits could help. I don't remember them offhand...Does that change anything?
 
From what I can see, it doesn't make much difference. Then you have:

\(\displaystyle \L\\\int\frac{cos(x)}{\sqrt{1+sin(x)}}dx+\int\frac{sin(x)}{1+x^{2}}dx=2\sqrt{1+sin(x)}+\int\frac{sin(x)}{1+x^{2}}dx\)

Who knows, someone else may have some illuminating method.
 
borderking said:
But the fact that there was another fraction in front or the fact that it was actually a definite integral doesn't matter, does it?
That certainly does make a real difference.
For example:\(\displaystyle \L
\int\limits_{ - a}^a {\left[ {\frac{{\cos (x)}}{{\sqrt {1 + \sin (x)} }} + \frac{{\sin (x)}}{{1 + x^2 }}} \right]dx} = \int\limits_{ - a}^a {\left[ {\frac{{\cos (x)}}{{\sqrt {1 + \sin (x)} }}} \right]dx}.\)
Because \(\displaystyle \L {\frac{{\sin (x)}}{{1 + x^2 }}}\) is an odd function.
 
DUH, I should've seen that. I thought there was probably something going on with it, but was to myopic to see it.
 
Holy cow, you're right! I didn't think of that. The limits were -pi/2 to pi/2. You're right, indeed, I guess the integral of that rightmost fraction is just 0? I didn't realize at first it was an odd function! Hmm, that teaches me not to leave information out when I ask a question...
Thanks
 
Top