The limit \(\displaystyle \lim _{x \to 0} \left( {\frac{{\sin (x)}}{x}} \right) = 1\) is one of the most important and useful limits is all mathematics.
For one thing, it tells us that for all non-zero numbers t close to zero the sin(t) and t have practically the same value. Thus \(\displaystyle {\frac{{\sin (t)}}{t}}\) is practically 1 as is \(\displaystyle \left( {\frac{{\sin (t)}}{t}} \right)^n\).
Thus wouldn’t it hold for \(\displaystyle \left( {\frac{t}{{\sin (t)}}} \right)^n ?\)
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