Grant Bonner
New member
- Joined
- Aug 27, 2009
- Messages
- 13
Ok, here's the deal. My friend and I are having an arguement on how to best prove the following.
Suppose x is a real number and e>0. Prove that (x-e,x+e) is a neighborhood of each of its members: in other words, if y is an element of (x-e,x+e) then there is d >0 such that (y-d,y+d) is a subset of (x-e,x+e) I will use P as a neighborhood of x, and Q as a neighborhood of y.
I think e<(d/2) as to make sure P is not contained in Q. 2d<=??????<2e<d. I also though about assuming z was an element of Q-P. I've got much scratch work, but nothing solid to start on.
She thinks it should be proof by case. i.e. d<e, d=e, d>e.
We both agree for the statement to be true d <e, or d=e and x=y.
This may not make sense. My head hurts.
I'm leaning towards proof by contradiction because it seems to be something we use heavily in class and we haven't done a proof by case yet.
Suppose x is a real number and e>0. Prove that (x-e,x+e) is a neighborhood of each of its members: in other words, if y is an element of (x-e,x+e) then there is d >0 such that (y-d,y+d) is a subset of (x-e,x+e) I will use P as a neighborhood of x, and Q as a neighborhood of y.
I think e<(d/2) as to make sure P is not contained in Q. 2d<=??????<2e<d. I also though about assuming z was an element of Q-P. I've got much scratch work, but nothing solid to start on.
She thinks it should be proof by case. i.e. d<e, d=e, d>e.
We both agree for the statement to be true d <e, or d=e and x=y.
This may not make sense. My head hurts.
I'm leaning towards proof by contradiction because it seems to be something we use heavily in class and we haven't done a proof by case yet.