mathwannabe
Junior Member
- Joined
- Feb 20, 2012
- Messages
- 122
Hello everyone.
Here is the problem:
1) If \(\displaystyle xyz=1\) then the sum of \(\displaystyle \dfrac{1}{1+x+xy}+\dfrac{1}{1+y+yz}+\dfrac{1}{1+z+zx}\) equals ? (Offered answers are \(\displaystyle 0\) , \(\displaystyle 1\) , \(\displaystyle 2\) , \(\displaystyle 3\) , \(\displaystyle 4\) ).
I have tried "brute force" adding the fractions, I have tried substituting \(\displaystyle 1\) in denominators with \(\displaystyle xyz\) and then factoring denominators to see where it would lead me, I have tried substituting \(\displaystyle 1\) in numerators with \(\displaystyle xyz\) and then canceling with factored denominators. All these attempts were leading me to some nonsense results.
Then I figured, since the problem does not state that \(\displaystyle x\neq y\) , \(\displaystyle x\neq z\) , \(\displaystyle y\neq z\) I can assume that \(\displaystyle x=y=z=1\). In this case the expression equals \(\displaystyle 1\).
But, for all I know, it could be that \(\displaystyle x=\frac{1}{4}\) , \(\displaystyle y=8\) , \(\displaystyle z=\frac{1}{2}\). Then when I test with substituting variables in the expression with mentioned values, I get some weird result (which is not in the list of answers).
So, Is my assumption that \(\displaystyle x=y=z=1\) correct, and why? What would your approach be to solving this problem?
Here is the problem:
1) If \(\displaystyle xyz=1\) then the sum of \(\displaystyle \dfrac{1}{1+x+xy}+\dfrac{1}{1+y+yz}+\dfrac{1}{1+z+zx}\) equals ? (Offered answers are \(\displaystyle 0\) , \(\displaystyle 1\) , \(\displaystyle 2\) , \(\displaystyle 3\) , \(\displaystyle 4\) ).
I have tried "brute force" adding the fractions, I have tried substituting \(\displaystyle 1\) in denominators with \(\displaystyle xyz\) and then factoring denominators to see where it would lead me, I have tried substituting \(\displaystyle 1\) in numerators with \(\displaystyle xyz\) and then canceling with factored denominators. All these attempts were leading me to some nonsense results.
Then I figured, since the problem does not state that \(\displaystyle x\neq y\) , \(\displaystyle x\neq z\) , \(\displaystyle y\neq z\) I can assume that \(\displaystyle x=y=z=1\). In this case the expression equals \(\displaystyle 1\).
But, for all I know, it could be that \(\displaystyle x=\frac{1}{4}\) , \(\displaystyle y=8\) , \(\displaystyle z=\frac{1}{2}\). Then when I test with substituting variables in the expression with mentioned values, I get some weird result (which is not in the list of answers).
So, Is my assumption that \(\displaystyle x=y=z=1\) correct, and why? What would your approach be to solving this problem?