Is it true that given a rational polynomial, f(x), that in order for f(x) = 0 to be true for a value x = a, it must then be true that there must exist an identity of f(x) such that (x-a) is extractable as a factor, that is, that f(x) = (x-a)(R) where R is some rational polynomial.
For example:
\[\begin{array}{l}
f(x) = \frac{x}{{x - 3}} - 2\\
x = 6\\
f(6) = \frac{6}{{6 - 3}} - 2 = 0
\end{array}\]
implies a B such that
\[f(6) = (x - 6)(B)\]
I know that it is true in this case and in fact (after a mild algebraic trick that I had not seen in algebra text books):
\[f(x) = \frac{x}{{x - 3}} - 2 = \frac{{(x - 6)}}{{(3 - x)}}\]
but is this case true in general, if not a simple counter example would be appreciated (I am prepared to be slapped by the the obvious, but anyway). If the general case is true for rational polynomials is it true when you include exponential, logarithmic and trigonometric expressions.
I was led into this query while trying to understand how proofs of calculus limits work. Thanks.
For example:
\[\begin{array}{l}
f(x) = \frac{x}{{x - 3}} - 2\\
x = 6\\
f(6) = \frac{6}{{6 - 3}} - 2 = 0
\end{array}\]
implies a B such that
\[f(6) = (x - 6)(B)\]
I know that it is true in this case and in fact (after a mild algebraic trick that I had not seen in algebra text books):
\[f(x) = \frac{x}{{x - 3}} - 2 = \frac{{(x - 6)}}{{(3 - x)}}\]
but is this case true in general, if not a simple counter example would be appreciated (I am prepared to be slapped by the the obvious, but anyway). If the general case is true for rational polynomials is it true when you include exponential, logarithmic and trigonometric expressions.
I was led into this query while trying to understand how proofs of calculus limits work. Thanks.