Tigerrabbit
New member
- Joined
- Oct 17, 2022
- Messages
- 3
May I ask one question? Is \(\displaystyle a^{(p-1)/2}=-1 \) right? How can I prove that? Could you help me?This is equivalent to the following two statements:Fermat's Little Theorem said:If p is a prime and a is any integer not divisible by p, then ap − 1 − 1 is divisible by p.
\(\displaystyle a^{p-1} \equiv 1 \: \: \text{(mod p)}\) and \(\displaystyle a^p \equiv a \: \: \text{(mod p)}\)
Is there one theorem can prove that [imath]a^{(p-1)/2}=-1[/imath]? Somebody show me this and some examples are also given to satisfy the result. Like that:
\(\displaystyle a=2, p=5 \rightarrow a^{(5-1)/2}=-1(mod\ 5)\)
How can I prove that?